ATI RN Comprehensive Predictor 2023 CNI College BSN practice questions with answers

ATI RN Comprehensive Predictor 2023 CNI College BSN

EXACT ATI RN Comprehensive Predictor 2023 questions with answers from actual exams. Students report 95% accuracy match. This is your golden ticket to passing.

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Free ATI RN Comprehensive Predictor 2023 CNI College BSN Questions

1. A nurse is witnessing a surgeon obtain informed consent from a client. Which of the following legal requirements is met by this action?

A. The nurse explained the risks and benefits of the surgery.
B. The nurse explained the surgical procedure in detail.
C. The client knows they may no longer refuse the procedure.
D. The client agreed to the procedure voluntarily.

Explanation

When a nurse witnesses informed consent, their role is to confirm that the client voluntarily agreed to the procedure, that the client’s signature is authentic, and that the client appeared competent and capable of making the decision. The nurse does not provide detailed information about the procedure or risks—that is the surgeon’s legal responsibility.

A nurse is initiating bladder retraining for a client who has urge urinary incontinence. Which of the following instructions should the nurse give the client?

A. "Take your diuretic medication with your evening meal."
B. "Plan to urinate every 3 hours while you are awake."
C. "Decrease your intake of cranberry juice."
D. "Limit your fluid intake to 500 milliliters per day."

Explanation

Explanation
Bladder retraining for urge urinary incontinence focuses on scheduled voiding to increase bladder capacity and improve control. Voiding every 2–3 hours helps train the bladder to hold urine longer and reduces episodes of urgency and leakage. This technique gradually lengthens the interval between voiding, allowing the client to regain voluntary control and reduce symptoms.

A nurse is caring for a 9-year-old child at a clinic.

Exhibit 1
Nurses' Notes
1000
Child has been brought to the clinic by their parent due to a report of right arm pain. The parent states that several hours ago the child tripped and fell onto the sidewalk while playing outside.
The child states, "I was running when we were playing, and i tripped over a curb." Child is supporting their arm across their body. Exhibit 2
Assessment
1000:
Child is alert and appears developmentally appropriate for their age and well nourished.
Respirations easy and unlabored. Abdomen nondistended. Right forearm and fingers are edematous.Ecchymotic area noted on outer aspect of the forearm. Radial pulse +2. Fingers slightly cool to touch. Child can move fingers and reports a mild "tingling" sensation. Child verbalizes a pain level of 4 on a scale of 0 to 10. Abrasion noted on right knee. No active bleeding. Multiple areas of bruising noted on lower extremities in various stages of healing.
Exhibit 3
Vital Signs
1000
Temperature 36.8° C (98.2* F)
Heart rate 102/min
Respiratory rate 22/min
BP 100/60 mm Hg
Oxygen saturation 98% on room air

Which condition is MOST consistent with all four assessment findings listed in the table (sensation changes, edema, ecchymosis, and pain) based on the child's injury and clinical presentation?

A. Sprain
B. Fracture
C. Dislocation
D. None of the above

Explanation

Explanation
A fracture best explains the combination of edema, ecchymosis, altered sensation (tingling), and pain following a fall onto the arm. This child’s forearm shows swelling, bruising, and mild neurovascular changes—typical signs of a bone injury. Supporting the arm across the body and reporting localized pain are also common behavioral indicators of a fracture rather than a soft-tissue or joint injury. Together, these findings strongly align with a fracture diagnosis.

4. 41. A nurse is supervising an assistive personnel (AP) who is caring for a client with an indwelling urinary catheter. Which of the following actions taken by the AP indicates proper technique?

A. Disconnecting the catheter from the drainage bag to empty the bag.
B. Emptying the drainage bag when it is half full.
C. Keeping the drainage bag above waist level.
D. Using sterile gloves when emptying the drainage bag.

Explanation

The AP should empty the urinary drainage bag when it is half full to prevent backflow of urine, which can cause infection or damage to the urinary tract. The bag should always remain below the level of the bladder to ensure proper drainage by gravity. Clean gloves, not sterile gloves, are appropriate for emptying the bag. Disconnecting the catheter from the drainage system increases the risk of introducing pathogens, and raising the bag above waist level promotes reflux of contaminated urine into the bladder.

A nurse is discussing antidepressants with a newly licensed nurse. Which of the following clients should the nurse identify as being a candidate for antidepressant therapy?

A. A client who has decreased urine cortisol levels
B. A client who has decreased interleukin-6 levels
C. A client who has decreased C-reactive protein levels
D. A client who has decreased serotonin levels

Explanation

Explanation
Antidepressant therapy is most appropriate for clients who have low serotonin levels, because serotonin is one of the primary neurotransmitters involved in regulating mood, sleep, appetite, and emotional stability. Many antidepressants—such as SSRIs—work specifically by increasing serotonin availability in the brain. Therefore, identifying reduced serotonin levels supports the need for antidepressant treatment.

A nurse is teaching a client who has multiple sclerosis. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?

A. "Have your partner complete activities of daily living for you."
B. "Soak in a hot bath."
C. "Perform aerobic activities three times per week."
D. "Schedule rest periods during the day."

Explanation

Explanation
Clients who have multiple sclerosis experience fatigue as a major symptom due to nerve conduction problems. Scheduling rest periods throughout the day helps conserve energy, prevents overexertion, and reduces symptom exacerbations. Planned rest allows the client to pace activities and maintain independence while avoiding triggers that can worsen MS symptoms.

7. 17. A nurse is preparing to obtain a blood specimen from a preschooler. Which of the following actions should the nurse perform?

A. Collect 4 mL/kg of blood in a 24-hr period.
B. Apply lidocaine cream 30 min prior to collecting the specimen.
C. Ask the parents to leave the room prior to collecting the blood specimen.
D. Demonstrate the use of the equipment to the child.

Explanation

Preschoolers benefit from age-appropriate explanations and demonstrations because they are concrete thinkers who learn best through seeing and doing. Demonstrating the procedure in simple terms helps reduce fear, builds trust, and increases cooperation. Lidocaine cream should be applied 60 minutes (not 30) before the procedure for optimal effectiveness. Parents are encouraged to stay to provide reassurance, and collecting 4 mL/kg in 24 hr exceeds the safe limit for most children.

A nurse is caring for a client who is in the emergency department with multiple traumatic injuries following a motor-vehicle crash. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?

A. Warm blood products prior to administration.
B. Assign the client a score on the Glasgow Coma Scale.
C. Remove the client's clothing.
D. Establish a patent oral airway.

Explanation

Explanation
The highest priority in trauma care follows the ABCs—Airway, Breathing, Circulation. Ensuring a patent airway is always the first intervention because without an open airway, the client cannot oxygenate or ventilate, leading to rapid deterioration or death. Establishing an airway allows further assessment and interventions to proceed safely. This is the most critical action before addressing neurological status, exposure, or blood product administration.

9. 119. A nurse is teaching a class at a local senior center regarding safety in the home. A client states, "I am afraid of falling because I live alone and have no one to help me." Which of the following statements should the nurse make?

A. "You can obtain a personal response system that will be activated if you fall."
B. "You need to move to a skilled nursing facility where they can prevent falls."
C. "You can have an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) come to your house daily to stay with you."
D. "You should contact a family member once a week to keep in touch."

Explanation

A personal emergency response system (PERS), also known as a medical alert system, allows older adults who live alone to quickly get help in the event of a fall or emergency by pressing a button on a wearable device. This promotes safety and independence while reducing anxiety about being alone.

10. A nurse is caring for a client who has type 1 diabetes mellitus. The client reports that she is not feeling well. Which of the following findings should indicate to the nurse that the client is hypoglycemic? (Select all that apply.)

A. Polydipsia
B. Tremors
C. Acetone breath odor
D. Inability to concentrate
E. Diaphoresis

Explanation

B. Tremors Tremors occur because hypoglycemia triggers the release of epinephrine, which stimulates the sympathetic nervous system. This response causes shakiness or trembling as the body attempts to mobilize glucose stores and maintain blood glucose levels. D. Inability to concentrate The brain relies on glucose for energy. Low blood glucose levels impair cerebral function, leading to difficulty concentrating, confusion, irritability, or even changes in behavior. These neurological symptoms are key indicators of hypoglycemia. E. Diaphoresis Diaphoresis (sweating) is an early sign of hypoglycemia caused by sympathetic nervous system activation. It is often accompanied by anxiety, palpitations, and hunger.

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ATI RN Comprehensive Predictor 2023 CNI College BSN

ATI RN Comprehensive Predictor 2023 CNI College BSN

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