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APEA STU 25FL2 NUR 611 Univ Predictor Exam 111525 at St. Thomas University

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APEA STU 25FL2 NUR 611 Univ Predictor Exam 111525 at St. Thomas University Nursing Exams
APEA STU 25FL2 NUR 611 Univ Predictor Exam 111525 at St. Thomas University
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About APEA STU 25FL2 NUR 611 Univ Predictor Exam 111525 at St. Thomas University

Get the EXACT STU 25FL2 NUR 611 Univ Predictor Exam 111525 questions with verified answers. Stop guessing and start passing. Real questions from actual tests available now.

Free APEA STU 25FL2 NUR 611 Univ Predictor Exam 111525 at St. Thomas University Questions

1.

The breasts of an 11-year-old female patient are not the same size; one is larger than the other and slightly tender. This is consistent with:

  • A - Tanner Stage 1.
  • B - Tanner Stage 2.
  • C - Tanner Stage 3.
  • D - Tanner Stage 4.

Explanation

Explanation
At Tanner Stage 2, also known as thelarche, breast development begins. It is common for girls to experience asymmetry in breast size, with one breast being larger than the other, which is often slightly tender. This stage marks the start of puberty, and changes in the breast tissue typically include the formation of small, palpable breast buds and tenderness due to hormonal changes. Asymmetry and tenderness are normal during this stage of development, and they usually resolve as the breasts continue to develop.
2.

A 21-year-old male presents with a blood pressure of 150/95 mm Hg, gynecomastia, and shrunken testicles. The most likely cause of these findings in this patient is:

  • A. Addison's disease
  • B. Hyperthyroidism
  • C. Anabolic steroid use
  • D. Pituitary adenomas

Explanation

Explanation
The combination of high blood pressure, gynecomastia, and shrunken testicles is highly suggestive of anabolic steroid use. Anabolic steroids can cause a variety of side effects, including cardiovascular issues (such as high blood pressure), hormonal imbalances (leading to gynecomastia and testicular atrophy), and disruptions to the hypothalamic-pituitary-gonadal axis, which affects testicular size and function. These findings are classic signs of the negative effects of synthetic testosterone or other anabolic steroid use.
3.

The evaluation of your work by one or more people of similar competencies to assure adherence to standards of practice is known as:

  • A - measurable outcome review
  • B - evidenced-based process review
  • C - peer review
  • D - quality assurance

Explanation

Explanation
Peer review is the process where individuals with similar competencies evaluate each other's work to ensure it adheres to professional standards and best practices. It helps maintain the quality of work and ensures that standards are met. Peer review is commonly used in healthcare, education, and other professions to provide constructive feedback and improve performance.
4.

A 26-year-old female was informed that she is 4 weeks pregnant. Social history reveals a 7.5 pack year history of cigarette smoking. The nurse practitioner explains that smoking during pregnancy increases the risk of her infant being born with:

  • A - a neural tube defect.
  • B - cleft palate.
  • C - vision or hearing problems.
  • D - microcephaly.

Explanation

Explanation
Smoking during pregnancy is associated with an increased risk of cleft palate, a congenital condition in which the tissues of the upper lip or roof of the mouth do not fully develop. Studies have shown that maternal smoking is a known risk factor for oral clefts, including cleft lip and cleft palate, particularly in the first trimester of pregnancy. This can occur due to the harmful effects of nicotine and other toxins in cigarettes that can interfere with normal fetal development.
5.

In a 56-year-old male, the sudden onset of symptoms indicating acute urolithiasis typically presents as:

  • A. pain originating in the suprapubic area.
  • B. pain originating in the flank area.
  • C. severe nausea and vomiting.
  • D. hematuria.

Explanation

Explanation
Acute urolithiasis, or kidney stones, often presents with sudden, severe pain that typically originates in the flank area. This pain is usually colicky, meaning it comes in waves, and may radiate to the lower abdomen or groin as the stone moves through the urinary tract. While nausea and vomiting (C) can accompany the pain, they are secondary symptoms rather than the primary indication of the condition. Hematuria (D), or blood in the urine, is also common in urolithiasis, but flank pain is the hallmark symptom. Pain in the suprapubic area (A) is more typical of conditions affecting the bladder, such as cystitis.
6.

A 2-year-old child presents with symptoms of respiratory syncytial virus (RSV). This diagnosis can be confirmed by performing:

  • A. a tonsillar culture.
  • B. an oral-buccal swab.
  • C. a nasal swab.
  • D. a serum sample.

Explanation

Explanation
RSV, which causes respiratory infections like bronchiolitis and pneumonia in young children, is commonly diagnosed by performing a nasal swab (C) to collect samples from the respiratory tract. This sample can then be tested using PCR, antigen detection, or viral culture to confirm the presence of RSV. Tonsillar culture (A) and oral-buccal swabs (B) are not typically used for RSV diagnosis. Serum samples (D) are generally used for detecting antibodies or other infections, not for diagnosing RSV directly. Therefore, a nasal swab is the most appropriate and effective test for confirming RSV.
7.

Patients with systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) are considered at high risk for developing:

  • A. anemia.
  • B. weight gain.
  • C. infections.
  • D. irritable bowel disease.

Explanation

Explanation
Patients with systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) are at high risk for developing infections due to a combination of factors. SLE itself can affect the immune system, often resulting in immunosuppression. Additionally, many patients with SLE are treated with immunosuppressive medications (such as corticosteroids or disease-modifying antirheumatic drugs), which further increase the risk of infections. Anemia (A) can also occur in SLE but is not as directly related to the immune system's dysfunction in the same way as infections. Weight gain (B) and irritable bowel disease (D) are not as commonly associated with SLE.
8.

The minimum age for routine immunization with the MMR vaccine is:

  • A - 6 months
  • B - 12 months
  • C - 2 years
  • D - 4 years

Explanation

Explanation
The MMR (measles, mumps, and rubella) vaccine is typically administered as the first dose at 12 months of age. This is the recommended age for routine immunization to protect against these serious diseases. The vaccine is an essential part of the childhood immunization schedule and is usually followed by a second dose at 4-6 years of age for additional protection. The timing at 12 months is crucial as it provides immunity before the child enters preschool or daycare, where exposure risk is higher.
9.

A 20-year-old college student presents with complaints of persistent nasal congestion, hoarseness, and nosebleeds. On examination, the NP observes boggy mucous membranes and a perforated nasal septum. The differential diagnosis that the nurse practitioner should consider is:

  • A - allergic rhinitis.
  • B - sinonasal malignancy.
  • C - cocaine abuse.
  • D - topical antihistamines.

Explanation

Explanation
The presence of a perforated nasal septum, along with persistent nasal congestion, hoarseness, and nosebleeds, is highly suspicious for cocaine abuse. Cocaine use, especially when snorted, can cause chronic irritation of the nasal mucosa, leading to damage of the septum and perforation. This damage is often seen in individuals who have frequent nasal drug use, and they may also experience frequent nosebleeds and other symptoms like congestion or hoarseness due to the drying effect of the drug on the mucous membranes.
10.

A patient with a BMI of 35 and a history of hyperlipidemia is newly diagnosed with type 2 diabetes mellitus. The patient reports fasting blood glucose levels between 180 and 250 mg/dL (10.1-14 mmol/L). The patient's current A1C level is 7.5. What is the most appropriate initial treatment to consider?

  • A - A low-calorie diet and exercise
  • B - Insulin glargine
  • C - Oral metformin
  • D - A sulfonylurea with a sliding scale regular insulin

Explanation

Explanation
For a patient newly diagnosed with type 2 diabetes mellitus, the first-line treatment is typically oral metformin. Metformin is a biguanide that works by decreasing hepatic glucose production and improving insulin sensitivity. It is well-tolerated, has proven efficacy in reducing blood glucose levels, and helps with weight management, which is important for this patient with a BMI of 35. Given the patient's fasting blood glucose levels between 180 and 250 mg/dL and an A1C of 7.5%, metformin is an appropriate starting point to improve glycemic control without causing significant weight gain or hypoglycemia.

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